John 10:35

“And if he indeed calls “gods” the ones to whom this message is given,” Jesus expounds, “you cannot simply discard or violate God’s word!” John 10:35 EFP

Jesus is not letting go of his line of reasoning. Reality check: Jesus is the one who inspired Asaph to write this psalm. He knows what he meant when he moved the psalmist to put his thoughts onto the papyrus.

I do not believe God “Elohim” was leading Asaph to write that those who are entrusted with the duty of judging and protecting the people of God, are “Elohim” in the same sense as YHWH himself is, or even “the angel of the Lord.”

But before he wraps this up he is no doubt making his argument iron-clad. At this point his defense is “you can’t overlook or ignore the Scripture. It is from God. That being the case, the psalmist, under the inspiration of God says that God declares “you are gods” to those who occupy a place of importance in the care of his people

Either God calls these people “gods” and by extension potentially all of us, or there is a message that his listeners are missing in their understanding of this passage and of God, for that matter. As those commissioned with the responsibility of protecting the Scriptures, they are now in an uncomfortable position of agreeing with Jesus’ premise and giving credence to his technicality or having to discard with this portion of Scripture. The plot thickens even more.

John 10:34

Jesus answers them, “Wait a minute! Does not your law say, ‘I declare, “You are gods”’”? John 10:34 EFP 

I must confess this statement of Jesus threw me for a loop. I could not fathom why he would say this and what he hoped to accomplish by quoting Asaph.

This interesting passage, found in Psalm 82:6 literally reads, “I have said, ‘You gods’, of you are children of the most high all.” To complicate matters the term used by Asaph to clarify “gods” is “Elohim”, which is the terms used to refer to God in Genesis 1:1. This is no minor title. It is Elohim, a plural noun used as a name for the Almighty! Yes, it can be used (as apparently it is in Psalms 82) as a term to refer to judges, or those whom God has placed to judge in his place. The context of this Psalm is pretty clear about this. Which brings me back to what Jesus is doing. If the verse being quoted is not intended to refer to humans as “gods” in the stature of THE LORD, why does he refer to it and use it as justification for making himself equal to God?

Jesus is wise and crafty. This is not the only time he uses Scripture to confound the biblical experts of his day (read Mark 12:35-37). Does he intend to use the Scriptures they study diligently as a weapon against their unscriptural position? On the other hand, does not the very Scriptures demand those guilty of blasphemy be put to death (Leviticus 24:10-16)? So, is Jesus simply is using Scripture to prove he is not guilty of the crime they are accusing him of committing? I am baffled for now. I may have to come back to this later…. There are layers that need to be peeled back at some point.

John 10:33

The Jewish leaders answer him, “We have no problem with your good works. We would not stone you for that. It’s the blasphemy we will not tolerate! Beyond that, you make yourself to be God, when you are nothing but a common man!” John 10:33 EFP 

This is a very interesting exchange between Jesus and the Jewish opposition. There is an intriguing nuance in their defense of their position that he deserves death. I see a double basis for their fierce ire, and it is not, according to them, any good works that he has performed.

That is already a concession they are making to Jesus. They admit that he has performed good works, at least they do so tacitly. But then they state their case against him. First, there is the matter of blasphemy—the act of speaking sacrilege and contempt against God. It seems that they consider his claims sacrilegious. I am not sure they know the basis for their discomfort, but his claims certainly do not sound orthodox to them.

But then there is a second reason that is very specific and is not a simple and non-descript matter of blasphemy. This is specific. They accuse him of making himself to be God—or clearer still, one with God. To this obvious violation they add that his behavior is made even more heinous by the fact that he I just a common man—at least not a man of any significant stature in their eyes.

His words are in violation of their concept of sacred and his claims to be one with God are inconsistent with what they believe to be true based on their understanding of Scripture. I have to ask—Is this simply a matter of perception? Do they seek to kill him because of what they perceive to be theological error? Is theological disagreement the basis for breaking fellowship and labeling someone else as unfit to live (or unfit for heaven)? I can see why their fervor leads them here, but I question whether their fervor is misplaced. If theological and doctrinal purity is the basis for distinguishing between the faithful and the lost—between the sheep and the goats, then who will be saved? It will be a spiritual IQ test. That is not in harmony with the tenor of Scripture. Read John 5:39.