Tuesday, September 22, 2015

John 10:34

Jesus answers them, “Wait a minute! Does not your law say, ‘I declare, “You are gods”’”? John 10:34 EFP 

I must confess this statement of Jesus threw me for a loop. I could not fathom why he would say this and what he hoped to accomplish by quoting Asaph.

This interesting passage, found in Psalm 82:6 literally reads, “I have said, ‘You gods’, of you are children of the most high all.” To complicate matters the term used by Asaph to clarify “gods” is “Elohim”, which is the terms used to refer to God in Genesis 1:1. This is no minor title. It is Elohim, a plural noun used as a name for the Almighty! Yes, it can be used (as apparently it is in Psalms 82) as a term to refer to judges, or those whom God has placed to judge in his place. The context of this Psalm is pretty clear about this. Which brings me back to what Jesus is doing. If the verse being quoted is not intended to refer to humans as “gods” in the stature of THE LORD, why does he refer to it and use it as justification for making himself equal to God?

Jesus is wise and crafty. This is not the only time he uses Scripture to confound the biblical experts of his day (read Mark 12:35-37). Does he intend to use the Scriptures they study diligently as a weapon against their unscriptural position? On the other hand, does not the very Scriptures demand those guilty of blasphemy be put to death (Leviticus 24:10-16)? So, is Jesus simply is using Scripture to prove he is not guilty of the crime they are accusing him of committing? I am baffled for now. I may have to come back to this later…. There are layers that need to be peeled back at some point.

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